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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

14.06.2025 08:31

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Why do wokes use words like "homophobes" when they don't know what that means? Do they realize that no one is afraid of them?

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

There's no rule.

Summer here, the one who debunks atheism. Isn’t it funny how atheists always say they prefer a “no-nonsense, evidence-based approach” to understanding the world, but when I bring up logical arguments for theism, they suddenly clam up?

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

What is your best forbidden sex story that felt so right?

You'll usually find your answer there.